Guys, got 1 question to ask.
I own a flat before i got married. This means i bought the flat with my CPF
before marriage and is 100% owned by me. Only my name is on the deed, my
wife name is not there at all.
My question is if there is a divorce can the family court force me to sell the
flat and give her 1/2 the falt even if the property was acquired before
marriage.
Does the law/wc only apply if the any property was acquired after marriage
that means those property bought before marriage does not apply?
Any comments would be helpful
